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| ID | 과목 | 파일명 | 문제 수 | 퀴즈 타입 | 소유자 | 통계 조회/가져오기 |
등록일 | 작업 |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 388 | 🌍 Individuals and Soci.. |
societies_quiz1_4_urbanization
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25문제 | 🛡️ 교강사 | admin | 👁️ 0 / 📥 0 | 2025-11-25 14:16:20 |
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| 387 | 🌍 Individuals and Soci.. |
societies_quiz1_3_factory_system
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25문제 | 🛡️ 교강사 | admin | 👁️ 0 / 📥 0 | 2025-11-25 14:16:20 |
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| 386 | 🌍 Individuals and Soci.. |
societies_quiz1_2_technological_innovations
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25문제 | 🛡️ 교강사 | admin | 👁️ 0 / 📥 0 | 2025-11-25 14:16:20 |
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| 385 | 🌍 Individuals and Soci.. |
societies_quiz1_1_causes_industrial_revolution
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25문제 | 🛡️ 교강사 | admin | 👁️ 0 / 📥 0 | 2025-11-25 14:16:20 |
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| 384 | 🔬 Science |
science_quiz8_8_earth_space_exploration
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25문제 | 🛡️ 교강사 | admin | 👁️ 0 / 📥 0 | 2025-11-25 14:16:20 |
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| 383 | 🔬 Science |
science_quiz8_7_stars_galaxies_universe
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25문제 | 🛡️ 교강사 | admin | 👁️ 0 / 📥 0 | 2025-11-25 14:16:20 |
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| 382 | 🔬 Science |
science_quiz8_6_solar_system
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25문제 | 🛡️ 교강사 | admin | 👁️ 0 / 📥 0 | 2025-11-25 14:16:20 |
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| 381 | 🔬 Science |
science_quiz8_5_climate_climate_change
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25문제 | 🛡️ 교강사 | admin | 👁️ 0 / 📥 0 | 2025-11-25 14:16:20 |
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| 380 | 🔬 Science |
science_quiz8_4_weather_atmosphere
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25문제 | 🛡️ 교강사 | admin | 👁️ 0 / 📥 0 | 2025-11-25 14:16:20 |
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| 379 | 🔬 Science |
science_quiz8_3_rocks_minerals_rock_cycle
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25문제 | 🛡️ 교강사 | admin | 👁️ 0 / 📥 0 | 2025-11-25 14:16:20 |
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| 378 | 🔬 Science |
science_quiz8_2_plate_tectonics_earthquakes
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25문제 | 🛡️ 교강사 | admin | 👁️ 0 / 📥 0 | 2025-11-25 14:16:20 |
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| 377 | 🔬 Science |
science_quiz8_1_earth_structure_layers
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25문제 | 🛡️ 교강사 | admin | 👁️ 0 / 📥 0 | 2025-11-25 14:16:20 |
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| 376 | 🔬 Science |
science_quiz7_8_conservation_sustainability
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25문제 | 🛡️ 교강사 | admin | 👁️ 0 / 📥 0 | 2025-11-25 14:16:20 |
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| 375 | 🔬 Science |
science_quiz7_7_human_impact
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25문제 | 🛡️ 교강사 | admin | 👁️ 0 / 📥 0 | 2025-11-25 14:16:20 |
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| 374 | 🔬 Science |
science_quiz7_6_biodiversity_species_interactions
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25문제 | 🛡️ 교강사 | admin | 👁️ 0 / 📥 0 | 2025-11-25 14:16:20 |
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| 373 | 🔬 Science |
science_quiz7_5_population_ecology
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25문제 | 🛡️ 교강사 | admin | 👁️ 0 / 📥 0 | 2025-11-25 14:16:20 |
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| 372 | 🔬 Science |
science_quiz7_4_biogeochemical_cycles
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25문제 | 🛡️ 교강사 | admin | 👁️ 0 / 📥 0 | 2025-11-25 14:16:20 |
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| 371 | 🔬 Science |
science_quiz7_3_energy_flow
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25문제 | 🛡️ 교강사 | admin | 👁️ 0 / 📥 0 | 2025-11-25 14:16:20 |
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| 370 | 🔬 Science |
science_quiz7_2_food_chains_webs
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25문제 | 🛡️ 교강사 | admin | 👁️ 0 / 📥 0 | 2025-11-25 14:16:20 |
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| 369 | 🔬 Science |
science_quiz7_1_introduction_ecosystems
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25문제 | 🛡️ 교강사 | admin | 👁️ 0 / 📥 0 | 2025-11-25 14:16:20 |
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📖 societies_quiz1_4_urbanization
What is urbanization?
1. Process where decreasing proportion of population lives in cities
2. Building more factories
3. Process where increasing proportion of population lives in cities rather than rural areas ✓
4. Increasing agricultural production
What percentage of Britain's population lived in rural areas in 1750?
1. About 50%
2. About 20%
3. About 80% ✓
4. About 100%
What percentage of Britain's population lived in cities by 1850?
1. About 50% ✓
2. About 20%
3. About 80%
4. About 100%
What was a push factor causing rural-to-urban migration?
1. Factory jobs in cities
2. Higher wages in cities
3. Enclosure movement displacing small farmers and fewer agricultural jobs ✓
4. Urban opportunities
What was a pull factor attracting people to cities?
1. Rural poverty
2. Better farming opportunities
3. Abundant factory jobs, higher wages, and social opportunities ✓
4. Less competition
Where were industrial cities typically located?
1. Near resources like coal fields, iron deposits, and ports, or at transportation hubs ✓
2. Only in the south
3. Randomly distributed
4. Only near London
How much did Manchester's population grow between 1771 and 1851?
1. It tripled
2. It doubled
3. It grew nearly 14 times from 22,000 to 303,000 ✓
4. It stayed the same
What was back-to-back housing?
1. Houses facing each other
2. Rows of houses sharing back walls, with two rooms, no back door or windows, shared outdoor toilets, and no running water ✓
3. Luxury housing
4. Government-built housing
What were cellar dwellings?
1. Luxury basements
2. Poorest people living in basements below street level, prone to flooding with almost no light ✓
3. Storage areas
4. Factory workspaces
What was the sanitation crisis in industrial cities?
1. Too much clean water
2. Too many sewers
3. No sewers, no clean water, no waste collection, leading to contaminated water and disease ✓
4. Too much waste collection
How many people died in Britain's 1848-1849 cholera epidemic?
1. About 5,000
2. No deaths
3. About 100,000
4. About 52,000 ✓
What was infant mortality like in industrial cities?
1. Lower than rural areas
2. About 50% of children died before age 5, much higher than rural areas ✓
3. Same as rural areas
4. No children died
What caused air pollution in industrial cities?
1. Too many trees
2. Natural weather patterns
3. Clean air from factories
4. Thousands of factory chimneys and domestic coal fires creating thick, choking smog ✓
What was the 'Great Stink' of 1858?
1. A famous perfume
2. A fashion trend
3. A food shortage
4. The River Thames in London so polluted that Parliament had to close ✓
What social problems increased in industrial cities?
1. No social problems
2. Increased crime, poverty-driven theft, gangs, prostitution, and widespread alcoholism ✓
3. Only minor issues
4. Problems decreased
What was class segregation in cities?
1. All classes lived together
2. Only rich lived in cities
3. Rich moved to suburbs, poor packed in city centers near factories, with physical and social separation ✓
4. Only poor lived in cities
Who was Edwin Chadwick and what did he do?
1. A factory owner
2. A politician who opposed reform
3. A public health reformer who investigated sanitary conditions in 1842, linking disease to filthy environment ✓
4. A factory worker
What was the 1848 Public Health Act?
1. It created Board of Health and allowed local boards to improve sanitation, though it was voluntary and weak ✓
2. It banned all public health measures
3. It had no provisions
4. It only helped the rich
What sanitation improvements were made in London?
1. No improvements
2. Joseph Bazalgette's comprehensive sewer system in the 1860s that separated sewage from water supply ✓
3. Only minor changes
4. Only for wealthy areas
What new urban institutions were created?
1. No new institutions
2. Only housing
3. Only factories
4. Professional police forces, public libraries, museums, and parks ✓
What was 'hot bedding'?
1. Sleeping in warm beds
2. A factory practice
3. A type of housing
4. Multiple shifts of people using the same bed at different times due to extreme overcrowding ✓
What percentage of Britain's population was urban by 1900?
1. About 50%
2. About 20%
3. About 77% ✓
4. About 100%
What was loss of community in cities?
1. Everyone knew each other
2. No change in community
3. Stronger communities formed
4. Anonymous urban environment broke traditional social ties, with no parish support system and isolation despite crowds ✓
What were model villages?
1. Better housing built by some enlightened industrialists like Saltaire, Bournville, and Port Sunlight, though rare exceptions ✓
2. Government housing projects
3. All industrial housing
4. Rural villages
What long-term lessons did Industrial Revolution urbanization teach?
1. No lessons learned
2. Infrastructure must precede growth, urban planning is essential, public health requires government intervention, and housing standards are needed ✓
3. Cities should not be planned
4. Only market forces matter
📖 societies_quiz1_3_factory_system
What was the main difference between cottage industry and factory system?
1. Cottage industry was at home with skilled craftsmen, factory system was in centralized buildings with machine operators ✓
2. Cottage industry was in factories, factory system was at home
3. There was no difference
4. Cottage industry used machines, factory system used hand tools
Why did production move from homes to factories?
1. Workers preferred factories
2. Government required it
3. Homes were too small
4. Machines were too expensive for individuals, required water or steam power, and needed large space ✓
What is division of labor?
1. Breaking production into many small specialized tasks ✓
2. Workers doing the same task
3. Dividing workers by age
4. Separating men and women workers
According to Adam Smith's pin factory example, how much did productivity increase with division of labor?
1. 100 times
2. 10 times
3. 2,400 times ✓
4. 50 times
What was standardization in the factory system?
1. All workers doing the same job
2. Standard wages for all
3. Standard working hours
4. Making all products to same specifications with interchangeable parts ✓
What was wage labor?
1. Workers owning their tools and workspace
2. Workers paid by hour or piece, selling only their labor without owning tools or workspace ✓
3. Workers sharing profits
4. Workers receiving free housing
What was an advantage of the factory system for owners?
1. Lower costs through economies of scale and less skilled workers needed ✓
2. Higher costs per unit
3. Less control over workers
4. Lower profits
What was a typical working day length in early factories?
1. 10-12 hours
2. 6-8 hours
3. 8-10 hours
4. 12-16 hours ✓
Why were factory conditions so dangerous?
1. Workers were careless
2. Machines were poorly made
3. Unguarded machinery, no safety regulations, and no compensation for injuries ✓
4. Workers lacked training
What was strict discipline in factories?
1. Constant supervision, no talking or singing, fines for lateness or mistakes, and beatings especially for children ✓
2. Workers could work at their own pace
3. Flexible work schedules
4. Workers could take breaks whenever needed
Why was child labor so common in factories?
1. Children were paid very little, had small hands good for machinery, fit into tight spaces, and were obedient ✓
2. Children wanted to work
3. There were no other workers available
4. Children were stronger than adults
What were pauper apprentices?
1. Skilled workers learning new trades
2. Children receiving education
3. Orphans from workhouses 'apprenticed' to factory owners, essentially slave labor ✓
4. Young adults choosing to work
What was industrial capitalism?
1. Workers owning factories
2. Government owning factories
3. New economic relationship where capitalists owned means of production and hired workers who sold only their labor ✓
4. Workers sharing ownership
What did workers lose when moving from cottage industry to factory work?
1. Nothing, they gained everything
2. Only their tools
3. Independence, control over pace, ability to work at home, and skilled craft status ✓
4. Only their workspace
What was the 1833 Factory Act?
1. It banned all child labor
2. It increased working hours
3. It limited child labor: no children under 9, ages 9-13 max 9 hours/day, ages 13-18 max 12 hours/day, with 2 hours schooling ✓
4. It had no regulations
What was the 1847 Ten Hours Act?
1. It increased hours to 10
2. It had no effect
3. It required 10 hours of education
4. It limited women and young people to 10 hours per day ✓
How did workers resist harsh factory conditions?
1. They did not resist
2. Only through violence
3. Only through legal means
4. Through strikes, early trade unions (illegal until 1824), and sabotage like the Luddites ✓
What was the physical environment like in textile mills?
1. Cool and comfortable
2. Well-ventilated and quiet
3. Very hot and humid, with lint and dust everywhere, deafening noise, and poor lighting ✓
4. Similar to offices
What was 'clock time' in factories?
1. Workers could work whenever they wanted
2. Only managers used clocks
3. Workers didn't need to know the time
4. Workers controlled by clock with bells signaling start, breaks, and end of work ✓
What were the main types of factories during the Industrial Revolution?
1. Only textile mills
2. Only pottery factories
3. Only iron works
4. Textile mills, iron works, pottery factories, and mining (similar conditions) ✓
What was a positive long-term impact of the factory system?
1. Mass production lowered prices, created modern consumer economy, and eventually higher standard of living ✓
2. Nothing positive
3. Only negative impacts
4. Workers became wealthy immediately
What was a negative legacy of the factory system?
1. Established precedent of worker exploitation, environmental pollution, and alienation of workers from their work ✓
2. No negative legacy
3. Only positive legacy
4. Workers became too independent
What was the putting-out system in cottage industry?
1. Workers putting products outside
2. Merchant supplied materials and paid for finished goods, workers worked at home ✓
3. Workers buying their own materials
4. Government supplying materials
What was Josiah Wedgwood's contribution to the factory system?
1. He applied division of labor to pottery production, creating high-quality affordable china ✓
2. He invented the steam engine
3. He banned child labor
4. He only worked in textiles
How does the factory system relate to modern issues?
1. It has no relevance today
2. Only positive aspects remain
3. All problems are solved
4. Similar issues exist in sweatshops, gig economy, automation replacing workers, and debates about work-life balance ✓
📖 societies_quiz1_2_technological_innovations
What was the main pattern of innovation during the Industrial Revolution?
1. Innovations were only in the textile industry
2. Inventions happened independently without connection
3. All inventions came from scientists in universities
4. One invention created need for another in a chain reaction ✓
Who invented the Spinning Jenny in 1764?
1. Richard Arkwright
2. James Hargreaves ✓
3. Samuel Crompton
4. Edmund Cartwright
What was the key innovation of Richard Arkwright's Water Frame?
1. It was hand-powered
2. It used steam power
3. It could weave cloth
4. It used water power and required factory production ✓
What did the Spinning Mule combine?
1. Spinning jenny and water frame ✓
2. Steam engine and water wheel
3. Power loom and cotton gin
4. Iron and coal production
What problem did the Power Loom solve?
1. Too much thread but not enough weaving capacity ✓
2. Not enough cotton
3. Lack of power sources
4. Poor quality thread
Who invented the Cotton Gin and what was its impact?
1. James Watt; it powered textile factories
2. Richard Arkwright; it improved thread quality
3. Eli Whitney; it made cotton processing 50 times faster ✓
4. Edmund Cartwright; it mechanized spinning
Why was the steam engine considered the most important innovation?
1. It only powered textile machines
2. It was the cheapest power source
3. It was invented first
4. It provided mobile, consistent power independent of water or wind ✓
What was James Watt's key improvement to the steam engine?
1. Using it only for pumping water
2. Using coal instead of wood
3. Making it smaller
4. A separate condenser that made it 75% more efficient ✓
What was the partnership between Matthew Boulton and James Watt?
1. They worked separately
2. Both were inventors
3. Both were businessmen
4. Boulton provided capital and business skills, Watt provided technical genius ✓
What innovation did Abraham Darby introduce to iron production in 1709?
1. Using steam power
2. Using charcoal from wood
3. Using coke (processed coal) instead of charcoal ✓
4. Using water power
What did Henry Cort's innovations in 1784 include?
1. Puddling process to remove impurities and rolling mill to shape iron ✓
2. Steam-powered spinning
3. Cotton gin technology
4. Water frame improvements
What was the Davy Safety Lamp used for?
1. Lighting factories
2. Powering steam engines
3. Preventing methane gas explosions in coal mines ✓
4. Spinning thread
How did steam-powered pumps help coal mining?
1. They removed water from deep mines, allowing deeper mining ✓
2. They provided light in mines
3. They transported coal to surface
4. They prevented explosions
What was the main characteristic of most Industrial Revolution inventors?
1. They avoided trial and error
2. They were university scientists
3. They worked only in laboratories
4. They were practical men solving real problems, often self-taught ✓
What was the approximate increase in British cotton production between 1760 and 1850?
1. 235 times ✓
2. 50 times
3. 10 times
4. 1000 times
How did iron production change between 1750 and 1850?
1. It decreased
2. It increased 80 times from 25,000 to 2 million tons ✓
3. It remained the same
4. It doubled
What was the main difference between cottage industry and factory system?
1. Cottage industry was at home with hand tools, factory system was in factories with machines ✓
2. Cottage industry was in factories, factory system was at home
3. Cottage industry used machines, factories used hand tools
4. There was no difference
Who were the Luddites and what did they do?
1. Government officials who regulated industry
2. Inventors who created new machines
3. Factory owners who built new factories
4. Textile workers who destroyed machinery because they lost jobs ✓
What was one negative social impact of technological innovations?
1. All workers became wealthy
2. Skilled workers were displaced and lost livelihoods ✓
3. Everyone found better jobs
4. No negative impacts occurred
Why could factories be built in cities after steam power was available?
1. Cities had more workers
2. Steam engines provided power independent of water sources ✓
3. Cities had better roads
4. Cities had more coal
What was the bottleneck in textile production before the Spinning Jenny?
1. Not enough cotton
2. Not enough thread for weavers ✓
3. Not enough power
4. Not enough factories
What impact did the Power Loom have on British textiles?
1. Reduced production
2. Made them more expensive
3. Made British textiles the cheapest in the world ✓
4. Made them lower quality
What was the Bessemer Process and when was it developed?
1. A textile spinning method from 1764
2. A steam engine improvement from 1784
3. A method to mass-produce steel developed by Henry Bessemer in 1856 ✓
4. A coal mining technique from 1815
How did innovations create a cycle of demand?
1. Innovations were completely independent
2. Each innovation reduced demand for others
3. Each innovation created needs for other innovations in an interconnected cycle ✓
4. Only one innovation was needed
What was a positive economic impact of technological innovations?
1. All goods became more expensive
2. Mass production made goods cheaper and more varied ✓
3. Production decreased
4. No economic benefits occurred
📖 societies_quiz1_1_causes_industrial_revolution
When did the Industrial Revolution begin in Britain?
1. 1850-1900
2. 1650-1700
3. 1760-1840 ✓
4. 1900-1950
What was the main transformation during the Industrial Revolution?
1. From urban to rural society
2. From industrial to agrarian society
3. From agrarian, rural society to industrial, urban society ✓
4. From machine manufacturing to hand production
What was the Enclosure Movement?
1. Fencing off and privatizing common lands ✓
2. Creating enclosed gardens in cities
3. Building walls around factories
4. Protecting industrial secrets
What was the four-field crop rotation system?
1. Growing four different crops in one field
2. Using four fields for one crop
3. Rotating turnips, barley, clover, and wheat to keep soil fertile ✓
4. Leaving fields empty for four years
Who invented the seed drill that planted seeds in rows?
1. Robert Bakewell
2. Edward Jenner
3. Jethro Tull ✓
4. James Watt
How did the Agricultural Revolution contribute to the Industrial Revolution?
1. It directly created factories
2. It replaced industrial production
3. It provided food surplus, displaced workers, and generated capital ✓
4. It had no connection to industrialization
What happened to Britain's population between 1700 and 1850?
1. It decreased from 9 million to 5.5 million
2. It doubled from 9 million to 18 million
3. It remained stable at 9 million
4. It grew from about 5.5 million to approximately 18 million ✓
What was a major cause of Britain's population growth during this period?
1. Increased immigration from Europe
2. Government policies encouraging large families
3. Better nutrition from agricultural improvements and medical advances like smallpox vaccination ✓
4. Decreased birth rates
Why was coal so important to Britain's industrialization?
1. Coal was primarily used for domestic heating in homes and had limited industrial applications during this period
2. Coal was mainly exported to other European countries to generate foreign exchange and trade revenue
3. Coal was the primary fuel for steam engines that powered factories, trains, and ships, and was crucial for smelting iron ore to produce machinery and construction materials ✓
4. Coal had no significant role in industrialization as water power and wind power were sufficient for all industrial needs
What natural resource was essential for machinery, tools, and railways?
1. Wood was the most important resource since all machinery and railway tracks were constructed entirely from timber
2. Iron ore was essential for producing machinery, tools, buildings, and railways, as iron and steel were the primary materials for industrial construction ✓
3. Coal was the only natural resource needed as it provided both fuel and construction material for all industrial purposes
4. Gold was essential because it was used as currency to purchase all necessary industrial equipment and materials
How did Britain's waterways contribute to industrialization?
1. Waterways were used exclusively for fishing and had no role in transporting industrial goods or materials
2. Rivers and canals created an excellent natural transportation network that made it easy and cost-effective to transport raw materials to factories and finished goods to markets throughout Britain ✓
3. Waterways primarily provided clean drinking water for growing urban populations and had minimal impact on industrial transportation
4. Waterways had no impact on industrialization as all transportation relied entirely on roads and horse-drawn carriages
Where did Britain accumulate significant capital for industrial investment?
1. Capital came exclusively from domestic agriculture as farming profits were the sole source of investment funds for industrial ventures
2. All industrial investment came from government loans as private individuals had no capital to invest in factories or machinery
3. Capital was generated primarily from exporting coal to other European countries which provided the main source of foreign exchange
4. Britain accumulated capital from colonial trade including the triangular trade between Britain, Africa, and the Americas, profits from the East India Company's trade with Asia, and domestic merchant activities ✓
What role did the Bank of England play in industrialization?
1. The Bank of England only served the government's financial needs and was prohibited from lending to private individuals or businesses
2. The Bank of England had no significant role in industrialization as it focused exclusively on government finances and did not interact with private businesses
3. The Bank of England actively prevented industrial investment by restricting credit and making it difficult for entrepreneurs to obtain loans for factory construction
4. The Bank of England, established in 1694, provided financial stability and, along with private banks, made credit and loans available to entrepreneurs, allowing them to borrow money to start factories and purchase machinery ✓
How did political stability contribute to Britain's industrialization?
1. Political stability had no effect on industrialization as economic development occurred independently of political conditions
2. Political stability only benefited the government by ensuring tax collection but had no impact on private business investment or industrial growth
3. Political stability actually prevented economic activity by creating complacency and reducing the urgency for industrial development
4. Britain's political stability, including no foreign invasions as an island nation, no internal wars after 1745, and a stable constitutional monarchy with rule of law, created a safe and predictable environment that encouraged long-term business investment and entrepreneurship ✓
What was the Protestant Work Ethic?
1. A cultural attitude that valued hard work, viewed wealth as a sign of virtue and divine favor, and respected entrepreneurship and business success as morally worthy pursuits ✓
2. A belief that work should be avoided as it was seen as a punishment and people should focus on leisure and contemplation instead
3. A religious requirement that limited work to only certain days of the week and prohibited labor on most days for religious observance
4. A social system that prevented social mobility by maintaining rigid class boundaries and preventing people from changing their economic status through work
How did Britain's social structure differ from Continental Europe?
1. Britain had a more flexible class system than Continental Europe, where it was possible to rise socially through business success, and the aristocracy was willing to invest in trade and industry, creating an environment supportive of entrepreneurship ✓
2. Britain's social structure prevented all social movement and maintained a completely fixed hierarchy where people could never change their social or economic position
3. Britain's social structure was identical to other European countries with the same rigid class system and no differences in social mobility or economic opportunity
4. Britain's social structure was more rigid and closed than Continental Europe, with stricter class boundaries and no possibility of social advancement
What scientific organization, established in 1660, promoted inquiry and experimentation?
1. The Royal Academy was the organization that promoted scientific inquiry and experimentation through its establishment in 1660
2. The Scientific Institute was the main organization established in 1660 that coordinated all scientific research and experimentation in Britain
3. The British Science Council was the government body established in 1660 that directed all scientific inquiry and controlled experimentation
4. The Royal Society, established in 1660, was a scientific organization that promoted a culture of inquiry, experimentation, and knowledge sharing, contributing to Britain's technological foundation and innovation culture ✓
What did Britain's colonial empire provide for the Industrial Revolution?
1. The colonial empire provided only raw materials such as cotton and sugar, but had no other significant role in supporting industrialization
2. The colonial empire provided only markets for selling British goods but did not supply raw materials or generate trade wealth for investment
3. Britain's colonial empire provided raw materials like cotton from India and America, captive markets to sell manufactured goods, wealth from trade to invest in industry, and global trade networks protected by the Royal Navy ✓
4. The colonial empire provided nothing of significance to the Industrial Revolution as all resources and markets were found domestically within Britain
Why did the Industrial Revolution begin in Britain rather than France?
1. France experienced frequent wars including the French Revolution and Napoleonic Wars, political instability that disrupted business investment, and had less accessible coal deposits compared to Britain's abundant resources ✓
2. France had all the same advantages as Britain including political stability, abundant coal, and capital, but chose not to industrialize for cultural reasons
3. France was too small geographically to support industrial development and lacked sufficient land area for factories and resource extraction
4. France didn't want to industrialize and deliberately avoided adopting new technologies or building factories due to preference for traditional agricultural economy
What was the relationship between the Agricultural Revolution and Industrial Revolution?
1. The Agricultural Revolution and Industrial Revolution were completely unrelated events that happened independently without any connection or influence on each other
2. The Industrial Revolution caused the Agricultural Revolution by providing new technologies and machinery that transformed farming methods and increased agricultural productivity
3. The Agricultural Revolution was an essential foundation for the Industrial Revolution, creating food surpluses to feed urban workers, displacing farmers who became factory workers, and generating profits that could be invested in industrial ventures ✓
4. The Agricultural Revolution and Industrial Revolution happened at the same time purely by coincidence with no causal relationship or connection between the two transformations
What was selective breeding, and who improved livestock using this method?
1. Selective breeding was a method of choosing which crops to plant in rotation, developed and popularized by Jethro Tull for agricultural improvement
2. Selective breeding referred to the process of selecting workers for factories based on their skills and physical abilities to maximize factory productivity
3. Selective breeding involved choosing the best animals to breed together, resulting in larger and healthier livestock, a method pioneered by Robert Bakewell that increased meat and wool production ✓
4. Selective breeding was the method used by industrialists to choose which factories to build in specific locations based on available resources and market conditions
How did population growth impact industrialization?
1. Rapid population growth provided essential advantages including a large labor force available for factory work, growing consumer markets to buy manufactured goods, and urban migration as people moved to cities seeking employment ✓
2. Population growth had no impact on industrialization as the number of people was unrelated to industrial development and economic transformation
3. Population growth prevented industrialization by creating overcrowding, resource shortages, and social unrest that disrupted economic development
4. Population growth only created problems such as food shortages, unemployment, and social conflict that hindered rather than helped industrial development
What was the significance of Britain's property rights and patent laws?
1. Strong property rights and patent laws protected inventors' and entrepreneurs' work, ensuring they could profit from their innovations, which encouraged experimentation and investment in new technologies ✓
2. Property rights and patent laws prevented all innovation by restricting access to knowledge and making it illegal to develop new technologies or inventions
3. Property rights and patent laws only benefited the government by allowing it to control and tax all inventions and business activities
4. Property rights and patent laws had no effect on industrialization as innovation occurred regardless of legal protections or property ownership regulations
What made Britain's combination of factors unique compared to other countries?
1. No other country had any of the factors that contributed to industrialization, making Britain completely unique in possessing any industrial advantages
2. All countries had identical conditions with the same resources, political systems, and social structures, so there was nothing unique about Britain's situation
3. While other countries had some of these factors, Britain was unique in having ALL necessary conditions simultaneously in the late 1700s: agricultural revolution, population growth, natural resources, capital, political stability, supportive social attitudes, technological foundation, and global markets ✓
4. Other countries had better conditions for industrialization including more resources, larger populations, and superior technology, but chose not to industrialize
Which of the following best explains why the Industrial Revolution is called a 'revolution'?
1. It is called a revolution because it involved violent political change with uprisings, rebellions, and the overthrow of existing governments across Europe
2. It is called a revolution because it was primarily a military conflict involving wars between industrial nations competing for resources and markets
3. It is called a revolution because it only changed agriculture by introducing new farming methods and crop rotation systems
4. It is called a revolution because it represented a fundamental and rapid transformation in how goods were produced, changing from hand production to machine manufacturing, and transforming the economy, society, and daily life faster than any previous economic shift ✓
📖 science_quiz8_8_earth_space_exploration
The Space Age began with:
1. The first successful airplane flight by the Wright brothers
2. The Apollo 11 Moon landing mission
3. Sputnik 1, the first artificial satellite ✓
4. The launch of the Hubble Space Telescope
The first human in space was:
1. Alan Shepard, an American astronaut
2. Yuri Gagarin, a Soviet cosmonaut ✓
3. Neil Armstrong, the first person on the Moon
4. Buzz Aldrin, who walked on the Moon
The first humans to walk on the Moon were:
1. No humans have ever walked on the Moon
2. American astronauts Neil Armstrong and Buzz Aldrin ✓
3. Chinese taikonauts on recent missions
4. Soviet cosmonauts during the Space Race
How many humans have walked on the Moon?
1. 24 astronauts during multiple missions
2. Hundreds of people over the years
3. Only 2 people, Neil Armstrong and Buzz Aldrin
4. 12 astronauts, all American men from Apollo missions ✓
Rockets work by:
1. Pushing against the ground with their engines
2. Using magnetic fields to levitate
3. Newton's Third Law—expelling gas downward creates opposite thrust upward ✓
4. Pushing against the surrounding air molecules
A satellite stays in orbit by:
1. Moving fast enough horizontally that it continuously "falls" around Earth ✓
2. Magnetic levitation
3. Being beyond Earth's gravity
4. Floating on air
GPS (Global Positioning System) requires:
1. At least 4 satellites for accurate 3D position ✓
2. At least 1 satellite to function properly
3. Only ground-based stations for triangulation
4. No satellites, using only ground signals
The International Space Station (ISS) orbits Earth at approximately:
1. 1 AU from Earth, similar to the Moon
2. 400 km altitude above Earth ✓
3. 35,786 km altitude in geostationary orbit
4. 100,000 km altitude in deep space
The Hubble Space Telescope orbits Earth and:
1. Studies only planets
2. Communicates with aliens
3. Observes the universe in visible light, UV, and infrared without atmospheric distortion ✓
4. Measures weather
The James Webb Space Telescope (JWST) is:
1. A ground-based telescope located on Earth's surface
2. A radio telescope for detecting radio waves
3. A satellite designed to measure Earth's climate
4. A replacement for Hubble, observing in infrared to see through dust and detect earliest galaxies ✓
Mars rovers have discovered:
1. Direct evidence of alien life forms
2. Evidence of past water including dry riverbeds, minerals that form only in water, and ancient lake beds ✓
3. Currently flowing water on the surface
4. Underground cities built by ancient civilizations
The first powered flight on another planet was achieved by:
1. Voyager 1 spacecraft during its mission
2. The Mars Curiosity rover using its wheels
3. Ingenuity helicopter on Mars ✓
4. The Apollo lunar module during Moon missions
Voyager 1 and 2 spacecraft:
1. Are still sending data and have entered interstellar space ✓
2. Never left Earth orbit and remain circling our planet
3. Returned to Earth after completing their missions
4. Crashed into planets during their journeys
The Cassini mission to Saturn:
1. Only took photos from Earth using telescopes
2. Studied the Sun and solar activity
3. Orbited Saturn for 13 years, discovered Enceladus geysers indicating a subsurface ocean, and landed Huygens probe on Titan ✓
4. Failed immediately after launch
Space exploration benefits humanity through:
1. Only providing entertainment value for viewers
2. No significant benefits to society
3. Wasting money that could be used elsewhere
4. Technology spin-offs like GPS and medical devices, scientific knowledge, inspiration, and long-term survival ✓
Which moon is the most promising candidate for finding life in our solar system?
1. Neptune's moon Triton with its icy surface
2. Jupiter's moon Io with its volcanic activity
3. Saturn's moon Enceladus with confirmed subsurface ocean, organics, hydrogen, and hydrothermal activity ✓
4. Earth's Moon with its surface rocks
Europa (Jupiter's moon) is interesting for astrobiology because:
1. It has a subsurface liquid water ocean beneath ice, possibly with hydrothermal vents that could support life ✓
2. It's made of valuable materials like gold
3. It's the largest moon in the solar system
4. It has no atmosphere at all
Over 5,000 exoplanets have been discovered by:
1. Receiving radio signals from alien civilizations
2. Sending space probes to distant star systems
3. Seeing them directly with powerful telescopes
4. Detecting their gravitational effects or observing star dimming when planets pass in front ✓
The "habitable zone" (Goldilocks Zone) is:
1. The orbital distance where liquid water can exist on a planet's surface ✓
2. A region very close to the star
3. Only Earth's specific orbit around the Sun
4. Anywhere within a solar system regardless of distance
SETI (Search for Extraterrestrial Intelligence) involves:
1. Building spaceships
2. Only studying Earth
3. Sending astronauts to other stars
4. Listening for radio signals from alien civilizations ✓
The Artemis program aims to:
1. Build space hotels for commercial tourism
2. Return humans to the Moon and establish permanent presence ✓
3. Land humans directly on Mars
4. Decommission the International Space Station
Challenges of human spaceflight include:
1. Too much oxygen in the spacecraft
2. Microgravity causing muscle and bone loss, radiation exposure, life support requirements, isolation, and risk to life ✓
3. Only boredom during long missions
4. Excessive gravity affecting the body
Commercial space companies (SpaceX, Blue Origin) are:
1. Reducing costs through reusable rockets and expanding access to space ✓
2. Government agencies
3. Only making toys
4. Not real
The primary reason Mars is a target for human exploration is:
1. It's most Earth-like with similar day length, seasons, past water, and potential for habitability ✓
2. It's the closest planet to Earth
3. It contains valuable resources like gold
4. It has a breathable atmosphere for humans
Searching for life beyond Earth is important because:
1. It's only for entertainment purposes
2. Aliens might invade Earth if we find them
3. It has no scientific value or importance
4. It would answer the fundamental question 'Are we alone?', reveal if life is common or rare, and expand our understanding of biology and the universe ✓
📖 science_quiz8_7_stars_galaxies_universe
A light-year is:
1. The time it takes Earth to orbit the Sun
2. The brightness of a star
3. The distance light travels in one year (~9.46 trillion km) ✓
4. The age of the universe
When we look at a star 100 light-years away, we see it as it was:
1. 100 million years ago
2. 100 years ago ✓
3. Right now
4. 100 seconds ago
Stars generate energy through:
1. Electricity flowing through space
2. Nuclear fusion converting hydrogen to helium in their cores ✓
3. Chemical reactions like combustion
4. Burning fuel similar to a fire on Earth
The color of a star indicates:
1. Its size
2. Its distance
3. Its age
4. Its surface temperature ✓
The Sun is classified as:
1. A supergiant
2. A white dwarf
3. A main sequence star (yellow dwarf) ✓
4. A red giant
A star's lifespan is determined primarily by:
1. Its mass (more massive = shorter life) ✓
2. Its age
3. Its color
4. Its distance from Earth
Most stars spend most of their lives:
1. On the main sequence (fusing hydrogen to helium) ✓
2. As red giants
3. As supernovae
4. As white dwarfs
When the Sun exhausts its core hydrogen (~5 billion years from now), it will become:
1. A neutron star
2. A red giant ✓
3. A supernova
4. A black hole
A white dwarf is:
1. A very hot, bright star in its main sequence phase
2. A type of planet orbiting around stars
3. The remnant core of a low or medium-mass star that is Earth-sized, extremely dense, and no longer fusing ✓
4. A young star just beginning to form
Massive stars (>8 solar masses) end their lives as:
1. Main sequence stars
2. White dwarfs
3. Planetary nebulae
4. Supernovae, leaving neutron stars or black holes ✓
A supernova is important because:
1. It has no significance for the universe
2. It creates and scatters heavy elements into space, seeding future stars and planets ✓
3. It destroys everything in the entire galaxy
4. It cools the universe by removing heat
A neutron star is:
1. A type of planet similar to Earth
2. The same type of star as our Sun
3. About the same size as Earth but made of neutrons and incredibly dense ✓
4. A star made primarily of hydrogen gas
A black hole is:
1. An object with gravity so strong that nothing, not even light, can escape ✓
2. A type of star
3. A hole in space
4. Empty space
A galaxy is:
1. A single star in the universe
2. A planet orbiting around a star
3. A massive collection of hundreds of billions to trillions of stars, along with gas, dust, and dark matter ✓
4. A moon orbiting around a planet
The Milky Way is:
1. Not a galaxy
2. A spiral galaxy ✓
3. An irregular galaxy
4. An elliptical galaxy
Our Sun is located:
1. Outside any galaxy in intergalactic space
2. In the Andromeda galaxy far from Earth
3. About 26,000 light-years from the center of the Milky Way in the Orion Arm ✓
4. At the exact center of the Milky Way galaxy
The Andromeda Galaxy is:
1. The nearest large spiral galaxy and on a collision course with the Milky Way ✓
2. A planet in our solar system
3. A star located within our solar system
4. A small galaxy inside the Milky Way
The Big Bang theory states that:
1. The universe is static and unchanging
2. Earth exploded to create the universe
3. The universe is shrinking and getting smaller
4. The universe began from an extremely dense, hot state and has been expanding ever since ✓
Evidence for the Big Bang includes:
1. Cosmic expansion with galaxies receding, Cosmic Microwave Background radiation, and light element abundances ✓
2. Only ancient myths and legends
3. No scientific evidence exists at all
4. Only computer models without observations
The Cosmic Microwave Background (CMB) is:
1. Light emitted directly from the Sun
2. Modern radio broadcasts from Earth
3. Radio signals sent by alien civilizations
4. The afterglow of the Big Bang, radiation from when the universe first became transparent ✓
The universe is approximately:
1. 13.8 billion years old ✓
2. 4.5 billion years old
3. 6,000 years old
4. Infinite in age
Dark matter is:
1. Empty space with nothing in it
2. Invisible matter that doesn't emit or absorb light but interacts through gravity ✓
3. Pure energy without any mass
4. Visible dust clouds between stars
Dark energy is:
1. A mysterious force causing the universe's expansion to accelerate ✓
2. Energy stored inside individual atoms
3. Solar power generated by the Sun
4. Energy emitted directly from stars
Looking at distant galaxies is like:
1. Looking into the past (we see them as they were billions of years ago) ✓
2. Time travel into the present
3. Looking into the future
4. Seeing them as they are now
The observable universe has a radius of approximately:
1. 150 million km (1 AU)
2. 46.5 billion light-years ✓
3. Infinite
4. 13.8 billion light-years
📖 science_quiz8_6_solar_system
The solar system consists of:
1. Only planets
2. Only Earth and Moon
3. The Sun and all objects that orbit it due to gravity ✓
4. Only asteroids
What is an Astronomical Unit (AU)?
1. The distance from Earth to the Moon
2. The average distance from Earth to the Sun ✓
3. The diameter of the Sun
4. The distance to the nearest star
The Sun generates energy through:
1. Burning fuel like fire
2. Nuclear fusion (hydrogen → helium) ✓
3. Electricity
4. Chemical reactions
The Sun contains approximately what percentage of the solar system's total mass?
1. 25%
2. 50%
3. 75%
4. 99.86% ✓
Terrestrial planets are:
1. Dwarf planets
2. Large, gaseous planets (Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune)
3. Small, rocky planets (Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars) ✓
4. Moons
Gas giant planets are:
1. Large and composed primarily of hydrogen and helium ✓
2. Small and rocky
3. Made of iron
4. All the same size
Which planet is smallest?
1. Mercury ✓
2. Mars
3. Venus
4. Pluto
Which planet is hottest?
1. Mercury because it is closest to the Sun
2. Venus due to its extreme greenhouse effect ✓
3. Mars with its thin atmosphere
4. Jupiter as the largest planet
Earth is unique in the solar system because:
1. It's the largest planet in the solar system
2. It has no moons orbiting around it
3. It's the only planet with liquid water, an oxygen-rich atmosphere, and life ✓
4. It's the farthest planet from the Sun
Mars is called the "Red Planet" because:
1. It's very hot
2. It glows red
3. It has red clouds
4. Its surface contains iron oxide (rust) ✓
Which planet is largest?
1. Saturn
2. Earth
3. Jupiter ✓
4. Neptune
Jupiter's Great Red Spot is:
1. A volcanic crater on the surface
2. An impact scar from a collision
3. A giant storm larger than Earth that has been raging for over 350 years ✓
4. A moon orbiting around Jupiter
Saturn is famous for:
1. Its spectacular ring system ✓
2. Its Great Red Spot
3. Being the hottest planet
4. Having no moons
Uranus is unique because:
1. It has no moons
2. It's the largest planet
3. It rotates on its side (98° axial tilt) ✓
4. It's closest to the Sun
Pluto was reclassified in 2006 as a:
1. Asteroid
2. Dwarf planet ✓
3. Moon
4. Planet
Asteroids are mostly located:
1. Beyond Neptune
2. Between Earth and Mars
3. Between Mars and Jupiter (asteroid belt) ✓
4. Near the Sun
Comets are sometimes called "dirty snowballs" because they are composed of:
1. Ice (water, CO₂, methane, ammonia) mixed with dust and rock ✓
2. Pure rock
3. Only metal
4. Pure ice
A comet's tail:
1. Always points toward the Sun
2. Is always the same size
3. Points in the direction the comet is moving
4. Always points away from the Sun (pushed by solar wind and radiation pressure) ✓
The solar system formed approximately:
1. 4.6 billion years ago ✓
2. 65 million years ago
3. 10,000 years ago
4. 13.8 billion years ago
According to the nebular hypothesis, the solar system formed from:
1. A collision between two stars
2. Ocean water
3. An explosion
4. A collapsing, rotating cloud of gas and dust ✓
Why are inner planets rocky while outer planets are gaseous?
1. Inner planets are older and have had more time to solidify
2. Temperature gradient: inner solar system was too hot for ices, only rocks condensed; outer system was cold enough for ices and gas capture ✓
3. Inner planets are smaller by random chance
4. Outer planets came from elsewhere in the galaxy
Jupiter's moon Europa is interesting because:
1. It's the largest moon in the solar system
2. It has a subsurface liquid water ocean beneath an ice shell, with potential for life ✓
3. It's the closest moon to the Sun
4. It has prominent rings like Saturn
Saturn's moon Titan is unique because:
1. It has a thick atmosphere denser than Earth's and liquid methane lakes ✓
2. It's made of pure gold and valuable metals
3. It has no atmosphere at all
4. It's the smallest moon in the solar system
The Galilean moons are:
1. The four largest moons of Jupiter, discovered by Galileo in 1610 ✓
2. Planets orbiting around the Sun
3. Asteroids in the asteroid belt
4. Comets with long tails
The Kuiper Belt is:
1. The asteroid belt
2. Earth's atmosphere
3. A region near the Sun
4. A region beyond Neptune containing icy bodies including dwarf planets ✓
📖 science_quiz8_5_climate_climate_change
Climate is:
1. Only temperature
2. Day-to-day weather conditions
3. Long-term average weather patterns over 30+ years ✓
4. Only precipitation
The most important factor determining a region's climate is:
1. Ocean currents
2. Latitude (distance from equator) ✓
3. Altitude
4. Vegetation
Higher elevations are generally cooler because:
1. They are farther from the Sun than lower elevations
2. Air pressure decreases, causing air to expand and cool ✓
3. There is more wind at higher elevations
4. There is less oxygen available at higher elevations
Coastal areas have more moderate temperatures than inland areas because:
1. They have more wind than inland areas
2. They have more vegetation than inland areas
3. They are at lower elevation than inland areas
4. Water has high specific heat capacity, so it heats and cools slowly, moderating temperature ✓
The natural greenhouse effect is:
1. A new phenomenon
2. Caused by pollution
3. Essential for life—keeps Earth at +15°C instead of -18°C ✓
4. Bad for Earth
Which gas is the most important human-caused greenhouse gas?
1. Carbon dioxide (CO₂) ✓
2. Argon
3. Oxygen
4. Nitrogen
Since pre-industrial times (~1850), Earth's average temperature has increased by approximately:
1. 1.1°C ✓
2. 5°C
3. 0.1°C
4. 10°C
The primary cause of increased atmospheric CO₂ is:
1. Volcanic eruptions
2. Burning fossil fuels (coal, oil, natural gas) and deforestation ✓
3. Ocean evaporation
4. Breathing by animals
Evidence for climate change includes:
1. No evidence exists
2. Only computer models
3. Rising global temperatures, melting ice/glaciers, rising sea levels, extreme weather ✓
4. Only opinions
Arctic sea ice is:
1. Unchanging for millions of years
2. Increasing
3. Staying constant
4. Decreasing at ~13% per decade since 1979 ✓
Sea level is rising primarily due to:
1. Melting floating icebergs in the ocean
2. Thermal expansion of warming water and melting land ice ✓
3. More rainfall over the oceans
4. Earthquakes causing land to sink
The current rate of sea level rise is approximately:
1. 10 cm/year
2. 3.4 mm/year
3. 1 mm/year ✓
4. 1 meter/year
Ocean acidification is caused by:
1. Oceans absorbing excess CO₂, forming carbonic acid ✓
2. Too much oxygen
3. Too much salt
4. Warming alone
Positive feedback loops in climate change:
1. Only cool the planet
2. Slow down warming
3. Amplify and accelerate warming ✓
4. Have no effect
Coral bleaching occurs when:
1. Sunlight decreases
2. Water is too cold
3. Fish populations increase
4. Warm water stresses corals, causing them to expel symbiotic algae ✓
Climate change mitigation means:
1. Building sea walls
2. Adapting to impacts
3. Reducing greenhouse gas emissions to prevent further warming ✓
4. Moving coastal communities
Climate change adaptation means:
1. Adjusting to climate change impacts through various strategies ✓
2. Ignoring the problem completely
3. Reducing greenhouse gas emissions
4. Only using renewable energy sources
Which is an example of climate change mitigation?
1. Planting drought-resistant crops
2. Evacuating coastal areas
3. Building levees
4. Transitioning to solar/wind energy to reduce CO₂ emissions ✓
The Paris Agreement (2015) aims to:
1. Limit global warming to well below 2°C, preferably 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels ✓
2. Ban all cars
3. Increase emissions
4. Require vegetarianism
Scientists are confident humans are causing current warming because:
1. It's just a guess without any evidence
2. Only one scientist believes this theory
3. No scientific evidence exists at all
4. Multiple lines of evidence including timing, isotope fingerprints, stratosphere cooling, and rate of change ✓
Which sector contributes most to global greenhouse gas emissions?
1. Agriculture alone without other sectors
2. Energy sector including electricity, heat, and transportation ✓
3. Waste management and disposal
4. Tourism and travel industry
Renewable energy sources include:
1. Natural gas only
2. Solar, wind, hydroelectric, geothermal ✓
3. Nuclear only
4. Coal and oil
Reducing meat consumption (especially beef) helps mitigate climate change because:
1. Livestock produce methane, require land, water, and feed, and contribute significantly to emissions ✓
2. Meat has an unpleasant taste and flavor
3. It has no effect on climate change
4. Only vegetables provide proper nutrition
Which climate change impact disproportionately affects vulnerable populations?
1. All impacts affect everyone equally everywhere
2. Only wealthy nations are affected by climate change
3. No one is affected by climate change impacts
4. Poor nations and communities suffer most despite contributing least to emissions ✓
Climate tipping points are:
1. Only in movies
2. Unimportant
3. Times when weather changes daily
4. Critical thresholds where changes become irreversible ✓
📖 science_quiz8_4_weather_atmosphere
The atmosphere is composed primarily of:
1. Oxygen as the most abundant gas
2. Carbon dioxide as the main component
3. Nitrogen, which makes up about 78% of the atmosphere ✓
4. Water vapor as the primary gas
Which atmospheric layer contains the ozone layer?
1. Troposphere
2. Stratosphere ✓
3. Mesosphere
4. Thermosphere
All weather occurs in the:
1. Stratosphere
2. Troposphere ✓
3. Mesosphere
4. Exosphere
As you go higher in the troposphere, temperature generally:
1. Increases
2. Fluctuates randomly
3. Stays the same
4. Decreases ✓
Weather is:
1. Only precipitation
2. Long-term average patterns (30+ years)
3. Short-term atmospheric conditions (hours to days) ✓
4. Only temperature
A high-pressure system typically brings:
1. Clear, calm weather ✓
2. Cloudy, rainy weather
3. Tornadoes
4. Hurricanes
A low-pressure system typically brings:
1. Cloudy, rainy weather ✓
2. Clear skies
3. No wind
4. Extreme heat
Relative humidity is:
1. The total amount of water vapor in the air
2. The ratio of actual water vapor to maximum capacity at that temperature, expressed as a percentage ✓
3. Always 100% in all conditions
4. The same as the air temperature
The dew point is the temperature at which:
1. Ice forms
2. Air freezes
3. Air becomes saturated and water vapor condenses ✓
4. Wind stops
Wind is caused by:
1. Volcanic eruptions
2. The Moon's gravity
3. Ocean currents
4. Differences in air pressure ✓
Clouds form when:
1. Cold air sinks
2. Warm, moist air rises, cools, and water vapor condenses ✓
3. The Sun heats the ground
4. Air pressure increases
Cumulus clouds are:
1. High, wispy, made of ice crystals
2. Low, gray, uniform layer
3. Puffy, white, fair-weather clouds ✓
4. Towering thunderstorm clouds
Cumulonimbus clouds produce:
1. Severe weather including thunderstorms, heavy rain, hail, and tornadoes ✓
2. Light drizzle and gentle rain
3. No precipitation at all
4. Only snow and no other forms of precipitation
Stratus clouds typically produce:
1. Heavy thunderstorms
2. Tornadoes
3. Light drizzle or steady rain ✓
4. Hail
Cirrus clouds are:
1. Low, puffy clouds
2. Middle-level gray clouds
3. Thunderstorm clouds
4. High, thin, wispy clouds made of ice crystals ✓
Precipitation occurs when:
1. The Sun heats the ground
2. Temperature increases
3. Cloud droplets grow large enough to overcome updrafts and fall ✓
4. Humidity decreases
A cold front is characterized by:
1. Warm air rapidly pushing under cold air
2. Cold air rapidly pushing under warm air ✓
3. No temperature change at all
4. Only occurring during winter months
A warm front is characterized by:
1. Immediate temperature increase with no clouds
2. Warm air gradually sliding over retreating cold air ✓
3. No clouds forming at all
4. Cold air sliding over warm air
The greenhouse effect is:
1. Natural process where atmospheric gases trap heat, keeping Earth warm ✓
2. Harmful pollution
3. Only caused by humans
4. Cooling of Earth
Air masses are classified by:
1. Color and smell of the air
2. Wind speed and direction
3. Size only without other factors
4. Temperature and moisture content ✓
A maritime tropical (mT) air mass is:
1. Cold and dry
2. Warm and moist ✓
3. Cold and moist
4. Warm and dry
Hail forms in:
1. Stratus clouds with uniform layers
2. Strong thunderstorms with powerful updrafts ✓
3. Cirrus clouds high in the atmosphere
4. All types of clouds equally
The Coriolis effect causes:
1. Moving air to deflect right in the Northern Hemisphere or left in the Southern Hemisphere ✓
2. Ocean tides to rise and fall
3. Earthquakes to occur more frequently
4. Day and night to alternate
The primary gas responsible for the enhanced greenhouse effect is:
1. Carbon dioxide, primarily from burning fossil fuels ✓
2. Nitrogen gas in the atmosphere
3. Oxygen gas in the air
4. Argon gas in the atmosphere
Isobars on a weather map connect points of equal:
1. Temperature
2. Humidity
3. Wind speed
4. Air pressure ✓
📖 science_quiz8_3_rocks_minerals_rock_cycle
A mineral must be:
1. Made by humans
2. Only naturally occurring
3. Naturally occurring, inorganic, solid, definite composition, crystalline structure ✓
4. Organic
Which of the following is NOT a mineral?
1. Quartz (SiO₂)
2. Coal (organic) ✓
3. Halite (NaCl)
4. Calcite (CaCO₃)
The hardest mineral on Mohs Hardness Scale is:
1. Talc
2. Diamond ✓
3. Quartz
4. Corundum
Streak is:
1. The shine of a mineral
2. The external color of the mineral
3. The way a mineral breaks
4. The color of the mineral's powder ✓
Cleavage describes:
1. A mineral's hardness
2. A mineral's color
3. How a mineral breaks along smooth, flat planes ✓
4. A mineral's density
Igneous rocks form from:
1. Cooling and solidification of magma or lava ✓
2. Compaction of sediments
3. Heat and pressure on existing rocks
4. Weathering
Intrusive igneous rocks have ______ crystals because they cool ______.
1. Large; slowly underground ✓
2. Small; rapidly at surface
3. No crystals; instantly
4. Medium; moderate speed
Granite is a(n) ______ igneous rock.
1. Extrusive
2. Intrusive ✓
3. Sedimentary
4. Metamorphic
Basalt is a(n) ______ igneous rock.
1. Intrusive
2. Sedimentary
3. Extrusive ✓
4. Metamorphic
Sedimentary rocks form from:
1. Cooling magma
2. Heat and pressure
3. Only volcanic eruptions
4. Weathering, erosion, deposition, compaction, and cementation of sediments ✓
Which sedimentary rock forms from compressed plant remains?
1. Limestone
2. Coal ✓
3. Sandstone
4. Shale
A sedimentary rock that fizzes in acid is most likely:
1. Sandstone
2. Shale
3. Limestone ✓
4. Conglomerate
Sedimentary rocks are the only rocks that:
1. Contain fossils ✓
2. Are very hard
3. Form from magma
4. Have crystals
Metamorphic rocks form from:
1. Cooling magma
2. Compaction of sediments
3. Heat and pressure changing existing rocks without melting ✓
4. Only erosion
Marble forms from:
1. Sandstone
2. Granite
3. Shale
4. Limestone ✓
Slate forms from:
1. Granite
2. Sandstone
3. Shale ✓
4. Limestone
Foliation in metamorphic rocks is caused by:
1. Alignment of minerals under directed pressure ✓
2. Cooling
3. Weathering
4. Cementation
In the rock cycle, any rock type can be transformed into any other rock type.
1. Only sedimentary to metamorphic
2. False
3. Only igneous to sedimentary
4. True ✓
Weathering is:
1. The breakdown of rocks into smaller pieces ✓
2. The movement of sediments
3. The formation of magma
4. The pressure on rocks
Erosion is:
1. The breakdown of rocks
2. The melting of rocks
3. The formation of crystals
4. The transportation of weathered materials by water, wind, ice, or gravity ✓
The rock cycle is driven by:
1. Only Earth's internal heat
2. Both Earth's internal heat and solar energy ✓
3. Only solar energy
4. Only gravity
Which rock would form first if magma cooled slowly underground, was uplifted and weathered, then metamorphosed?
1. Igneous → Sedimentary → Metamorphic
2. Igneous → Metamorphic (directly) ✓
3. Metamorphic → Sedimentary → Igneous
4. Sedimentary → Metamorphic → Igneous
Pumice is an igneous rock that floats in water because:
1. It has many gas bubble holes (vesicles), making it less dense than water ✓
2. It's made of lightweight elements
3. It's hollow
4. It's magnetic
Conglomerate is a sedimentary rock composed of:
1. Large, rounded pebbles cemented together ✓
2. Clay-sized particles
3. Sand-sized grains
4. Volcanic ash
Gneiss is distinguished by:
1. Lack of visible layers
2. Fizzing in acid
3. Ability to split into sheets
4. Distinct banding (foliation) of light and dark minerals ✓
📖 science_quiz8_2_plate_tectonics_earthquakes
According to the theory of plate tectonics, Earth's lithosphere is:
1. One solid unbroken shell
2. Completely liquid
3. Broken into large plates that move ✓
4. Made only of ocean floor
What was Alfred Wegener's hypothesis called?
1. Plate tectonics
2. Continental drift ✓
3. Seafloor spreading
4. Mantle convection
Which evidence did NOT support continental drift?
1. Identical fossils on continents now separated by oceans
2. Matching coastlines of Africa and South America
3. Ocean depth measurements ✓
4. Matching rock formations across oceans
The Mid-Atlantic Ridge is an example of:
1. Convergent boundary
2. Subduction zone
3. Transform boundary
4. Divergent boundary ✓
At a divergent boundary, plates:
1. Move toward each other
2. Slide past each other
3. Move away from each other ✓
4. Don't move
What forms at a divergent boundary on the ocean floor?
1. Mid-ocean ridge ✓
2. Trench
3. Mountain range
4. Volcano only
The San Andreas Fault in California is an example of:
1. Transform boundary ✓
2. Convergent boundary
3. Divergent boundary
4. Rift valley
At a convergent boundary where oceanic crust meets continental crust:
1. The continental plate subducts beneath the oceanic plate
2. The oceanic plate subducts beneath the continental plate ✓
3. Both plates rise up
4. Nothing happens
The Himalayas formed from:
1. Divergent boundary
2. Transform boundary
3. Convergent boundary (two continental plates colliding) ✓
4. Hotspot
What drives the movement of tectonic plates?
1. Wind
2. Ocean currents
3. Earth's rotation
4. Convection currents in the mantle ✓
The Ring of Fire is:
1. The center of Earth
2. A volcanic and earthquake zone around the Pacific Ocean ✓
3. A desert region
4. An ocean current
An earthquake is caused by:
1. Thunderstorms
2. Volcanic eruptions only
3. Sudden release of energy along faults ✓
4. Ocean waves
The point on Earth's surface directly above where an earthquake originates is called the:
1. Epicenter ✓
2. Focus (hypocenter)
3. Fault
4. Seismic zone
Which seismic waves arrive at a seismograph first?
1. Surface waves
2. P-waves ✓
3. S-waves
4. All arrive simultaneously
S-waves cannot travel through:
1. Solids
2. The crust
3. Both solids and liquids
4. Liquids ✓
The Richter scale measures:
1. Earthquake duration
2. Earthquake depth
3. Earthquake magnitude (energy released) ✓
4. Earthquake location
A magnitude 7 earthquake releases approximately how much more energy than a magnitude 6?
1. 32 times ✓
2. 10 times
3. 2 times
4. 100 times
Which plate boundary produces the deepest earthquakes?
1. Divergent
2. Transform
3. All produce equal depths
4. Convergent (subduction zones) ✓
Seafloor magnetic stripes provide evidence for:
1. Seafloor spreading ✓
2. Continental drift
3. Earthquake prediction
4. Climate change
What did Harry Hess propose in the 1960s?
1. Continental drift
2. Volcanic formation
3. Earthquake prediction
4. Seafloor spreading ✓
The oldest ocean floor is found:
1. At mid-ocean ridges
2. Near continents, farthest from mid-ocean ridges ✓
3. Randomly distributed
4. At transform faults
Why are there no ocean floor rocks older than ~200 million years?
1. Oceans haven't existed longer
2. Old crust is subducted and recycled ✓
3. Erosion destroys old rocks
4. Scientists haven't found them yet
What type of plate boundary forms the Andes Mountains?
1. Convergent (oceanic-continental) ✓
2. Transform
3. Divergent
4. Hotspot
Earthquakes do NOT typically occur at:
1. Plate interiors (far from boundaries) ✓
2. Subduction zones
3. Transform faults
4. Mid-ocean ridges
The 'shadow zone' for S-waves on the opposite side of Earth from an earthquake indicates:
1. The crust is thin
2. The inner core is solid
3. The mantle is solid
4. The outer core is liquid ✓
📖 science_quiz8_1_earth_structure_layers
Which layer of Earth do we live on?
1. Mantle
2. Outer core
3. Crust ✓
4. Inner core
What are the two types of Earth's crust?
1. Upper and lower
2. Continental and oceanic ✓
3. Solid and liquid
4. Hot and cold
Which layer of Earth is the thickest?
1. Inner core
2. Mantle ✓
3. Outer core
4. Crust
The Earth's crust is thickest under:
1. Valleys
2. Deserts
3. Oceans
4. Mountains ✓
What state of matter is the mantle?
1. Liquid
2. Plasma
3. Solid ✓
4. Gas
What causes convection currents in the mantle?
1. Heat from Earth's core ✓
2. Wind
3. Sunlight
4. Ocean currents
The outer core is composed primarily of:
1. Liquid iron and nickel ✓
2. Solid rock
3. Gas
4. Ice
What generates Earth's magnetic field?
1. The mantle
2. Movement of liquid iron in the outer core ✓
3. The Sun
4. The atmosphere
The inner core is:
1. Plasma
2. Gas
3. Solid ✓
4. Liquid
How do scientists know about Earth's internal structure?
1. By satellites
2. By using X-rays
3. By drilling to the center
4. By studying seismic waves from earthquakes ✓
P-waves can travel through:
1. Only solids
2. Both solids and liquids ✓
3. Only gases
4. Only liquids
S-waves can travel through:
1. Only gases
2. Only liquids
3. Both solids and liquids
4. Only solids ✓
Earth's density increases with depth because:
1. Pressure compresses materials and heavier elements sank during differentiation ✓
2. The atmosphere gets thinner
3. Oxygen increases
4. Temperature decreases
The process by which Earth's layers separated early in its history is called:
1. Sedimentation
2. Erosion
3. Differentiation ✓
4. Stratification
The boundary between the crust and mantle is called the:
1. Lithosphere
2. Lehmann discontinuity
3. Gutenberg discontinuity
4. Mohorovičić discontinuity (Moho) ✓
The lithosphere includes:
1. The entire core
2. Only the crust
3. The crust and uppermost rigid mantle ✓
4. Only the mantle
The asthenosphere is characterized by:
1. Being the same as the crust
2. Being completely liquid
3. Being very cold and rigid
4. Being partially molten and able to flow slowly ✓
What is the approximate temperature of Earth's inner core?
1. 2,500°C
2. 10,000°C
3. 1,000°C
4. 5,200°C ✓
Continental crust is primarily composed of:
1. Granite ✓
2. Basalt
3. Iron
4. Ice
Oceanic crust is primarily composed of:
1. Granite
2. Sandstone
3. Limestone
4. Basalt ✓
Earth's layers were discovered primarily through:
1. Deep drilling
2. Analysis of seismic wave behavior ✓
3. Volcanic samples
4. Satellite imaging
The Mohorovičić discontinuity was discovered by observing:
1. Magnetic field variations
2. Sudden increase in seismic wave velocity ✓
3. Volcanic eruptions
4. Gravitational changes
Why is Earth's core still hot after 4.5 billion years?
1. Radioactive decay and residual heat from formation ✓
2. The Sun heats it
3. Chemical reactions
4. Friction from rotation
Which statement about Earth's layers is TRUE?
1. The inner core is liquid while the outer core is solid
2. The crust is thicker than the mantle
3. All layers have the same density
4. Temperature generally increases with depth ✓
What evidence initially suggested Earth has a layered structure?
1. Volcanic eruptions
2. Atmospheric pressure
3. Ocean depths
4. Earth's overall density is much higher than surface rocks ✓
📖 science_quiz7_8_conservation_sustainability
Conservation aims to:
1. Eliminate all species from ecosystems
2. Prevent all human use of natural resources
3. Protect biodiversity and manage resources sustainably for current and future generations ✓
4. Ignore ecosystems and their importance
The main difference between conservation and preservation is:
1. Neither protects nature
2. Conservation allows sustainable use; preservation restricts all use ✓
3. Preservation allows use; conservation doesn't
4. They are identical
Currently, what percentage of Earth's land is protected?
1. 90%
2. 15% ✓
3. 1%
4. 50%
Biodiversity hotspots are defined as regions with:
1. No conservation value or importance
2. Low diversity and low threat levels
3. Only common and widespread species
4. High endemic species and significant habitat loss ✓
Captive breeding programs:
1. Remove species permanently
2. Harm animals
3. Breed endangered species in zoos/facilities for potential reintroduction to wild ✓
4. Always fail
Wildlife corridors:
1. Connect fragmented habitats, allowing migration and gene flow ✓
2. Only benefit humans
3. Block animal movement
4. Have no purpose
The IUCN Red List classifies species by:
1. Extinction risk using categories from Extinct to Least Concern ✓
2. Diet and feeding habits
3. Color and physical appearance
4. Size and body mass
Sustainable development means:
1. Using all available resources immediately
2. Meeting present needs without compromising future generations' ability to meet theirs ✓
3. Ignoring environmental concerns completely
4. No development or progress at all
The three pillars of sustainability are:
1. Air, water, soil
2. Past, present, future
3. Environmental, economic, social ✓
4. Plants, animals, decomposers
Net Primary Productivity is highest in which biome?
1. Polar ice
2. Desert
3. Tundra
4. Tropical rainforest ✓
The circular economy aims to:
1. Use resources once
2. Eliminate waste by continuously reusing/recycling materials ✓
3. Linear consumption
4. Create infinite waste
Ecosystem services are valued at approximately:
1. $1 thousand per year globally
2. $1 per year globally
3. $125 to 145 trillion per year globally ✓
4. $1 million per year globally
Sustainable forestry practices include:
1. Selective logging of mature trees and replanting ✓
2. Clear-cutting everything
3. Burning all forests
4. No replanting
Marine Protected Areas (MPAs):
1. Allow unlimited fishing
2. Restrict or prohibit fishing/extraction, allowing ecosystem recovery ✓
3. Harm fish populations
4. Have no rules
The Montreal Protocol successfully:
1. Banned CFCs, allowing the ozone layer to recover ✓
2. Failed completely in its objectives
3. Promoted increased pollution levels
4. Increased ozone depletion rates
Costa Rica's conservation success includes:
1. No conservation efforts at all
2. Losing all forest cover completely
3. Continued deforestation and habitat destruction
4. Increasing forest cover significantly through payments for ecosystem services ✓
Wolf reintroduction to Yellowstone (1995) demonstrated:
1. A trophic cascade where wolves controlled deer, vegetation recovered, and the ecosystem was restored ✓
2. Only wolves benefited from the reintroduction
3. Wolves harm ecosystems and should be removed
4. No effect on the ecosystem at all
Payment for Ecosystem Services (PES) involves:
1. Destroying habitats
2. No economic consideration
3. Taking resources for free
4. Compensating landowners for protecting ecosystems that provide services ✓
Renewable energy sources include:
1. Solar, wind, hydro, geothermal ✓
2. Nuclear only
3. Coal and oil
4. Natural gas only
The UN Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) include:
1. Only economic growth and development
2. Ignoring environmental concerns completely
3. Only developed nations and their needs
4. 17 integrated goals including poverty reduction, clean energy, climate action, and life on land and water ✓
Individual actions that help conservation include:
1. Buying more plastic products and disposable items
2. Reducing consumption, reusing items, recycling, eating sustainable foods, and conserving energy and water ✓
3. Increasing waste production and consumption
4. Ignoring environmental problems completely
The bald eagle recovery demonstrates:
1. Species can't recover
2. DDT ban, habitat protection, and breeding programs can reverse population declines ✓
3. Pollution is harmless
4. Conservation doesn't work
FSC (Forest Stewardship Council) certification indicates:
1. Forest products from sustainably managed forests ✓
2. No standards
3. Unsustainable logging
4. Clearcutting approved
Which is NOT a major threat to biodiversity (HIPPCO)?
1. Habitat loss
2. Protected areas ✓
3. Invasive species
4. Climate change
The most effective approach to conservation combines:
1. Ignoring the problem and hoping it goes away
2. Only individual efforts without any other support
3. Only government action without public participation
4. Individual actions, community initiatives, national policies, and international cooperation ✓
📖 science_quiz7_7_human_impact
The primary cause of biodiversity loss worldwide is:
1. Overhunting only
2. Climate change
3. Habitat destruction and fragmentation ✓
4. Light pollution
Deforestation contributes to climate change by:
1. Having no effect
2. Releasing stored carbon and reducing CO₂ absorption by trees ✓
3. Cooling the planet
4. Increasing oxygen only
Approximately what percentage of original forests has been lost globally?
1. 25%
2. 46% ✓
3. 10%
4. 90%
Eutrophication is caused by:
1. Low pH levels in the water
2. Too few nutrients in the ecosystem
3. Cold water temperatures
4. Excess nutrients causing algae blooms, oxygen depletion, and dead zones ✓
The 'dead zone' in the Gulf of Mexico is caused by:
1. Lack of nutrients
2. Too much oxygen
3. Fertilizer runoff from farms creating hypoxic conditions ✓
4. Natural processes only
Bioaccumulation refers to:
1. Toxins concentrating in organisms' bodies and increasing up the food chain ✓
2. Rapid population growth in ecosystems
3. Energy transfer between trophic levels
4. Nutrients increasing in the environment
How much has atmospheric CO₂ increased since pre-industrial times?
1. From 280 ppm to 420 ppm, representing about a 50% increase ✓
2. No change in atmospheric CO₂ levels
3. Decreased significantly over time
4. Doubled from 500 to 1000 ppm
Global average temperature has increased by approximately:
1. 10°C
2. 1.1°C since 1850 ✓
3. 5°C
4. No change
Coral bleaching occurs when:
1. Salinity decreases
2. Water is too cold
3. Warm water stresses corals, causing them to expel symbiotic algae ✓
4. Nutrients increase
The current extinction rate is approximately:
1. Slower than the natural background rate
2. The same as the natural background rate
3. No extinctions are currently occurring
4. 100 to 1,000 times faster than the natural background extinction rate ✓
Overfishing has depleted what percentage of large fish populations since 1950?
1. 50%
2. 10% ✓
3. 90%
4. 30%
The collapse of the Atlantic cod fishery demonstrated:
1. Sustainable fishing practices
2. Fishing has no impact
3. How overexploitation can cause population collapse and economic disaster ✓
4. Fish populations always recover
Invasive species are primarily spread by:
1. Human activities including trade, travel, and intentional or accidental introduction ✓
2. Only natural migration patterns of species
3. Never through human activities
4. Spontaneous generation in new environments
Plastic pollution in oceans:
1. Doesn't exist
2. Helps marine life
3. Persists for centuries, harming wildlife through ingestion and entanglement ✓
4. Decomposes quickly
Habitat fragmentation is harmful because:
1. Animals prefer smaller habitat fragments
2. It has no effect on ecosystems
3. It creates more total habitat area
4. It isolates populations, prevents migration, and increases edge effects ✓
Ecological footprint measures:
1. The physical size of a person's shoe
2. A person's height and body measurements
3. The land and water area required to support a person's lifestyle and absorb their waste ✓
4. The distance a person walks in a day
If everyone lived like the average American (8 gha/person) and Earth provides 1.7 gha/person:
1. We'd need approximately 5 Earths ✓
2. We'd be sustainable
3. We'd need less than 1 Earth
4. No problem
Ocean acidification is caused by:
1. Too much oxygen dissolved in seawater
2. Only warming of ocean temperatures
3. Fresh water input from rivers
4. Excess atmospheric CO₂ dissolving in seawater and lowering pH ✓
The main driver of Amazon rainforest deforestation is:
1. Cattle ranching and agriculture (soy, palm oil) ✓
2. Natural fires
3. Tourism
4. Conservation efforts
Which human activity does NOT significantly impact biodiversity?
1. Introducing invasive species
2. Deforestation
3. Fossil fuel combustion
4. Birdwatching ✓
Overshoot occurs when humanity:
1. Lives sustainably
2. Consumes resources faster than Earth can regenerate them ✓
3. Uses too few resources
4. Has no impact
What percentage of medicines are derived from natural sources?
1. About 10%
2. About 50% ✓
3. Less than 1%
4. 100%
The Paris Agreement aims to:
1. Limit global warming to well below 2°C, preferably 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels ✓
2. Promote fossil fuels
3. Ignore climate
4. Increase emissions
Trawling (fishing method) is destructive because:
1. It drags heavy nets across the seafloor, destroying habitat and catching massive bycatch ✓
2. It only catches the intended target species
3. It has no impact on marine ecosystems
4. It's very selective and precise in what it catches
Which statement about human population is TRUE?
1. It's remained stable for centuries
2. It's decreasing rapidly
3. It will reach 20 billion by 2030
4. It reached 8 billion in 2024, with growth slowing in developed nations but continuing in developing nations ✓
📖 science_quiz7_6_biodiversity_species_interactions
Biodiversity includes diversity at which levels?
1. Only species
2. Only ecosystems
3. Genetic, species, and ecosystem levels ✓
4. Only genetic
Species richness refers to:
1. How evenly distributed species are
2. The number of different species in an area ✓
3. Total biomass
4. Population size
Species evenness refers to:
1. Number of species
2. How equally distributed individuals are among species ✓
3. Total area
4. Only dominant species
High biodiversity provides ecosystems with:
1. Less stability
2. Fewer interactions
3. Faster extinction
4. Greater stability and resilience to disturbances ✓
Competition between species (interspecific) is represented as:
1. (+ / +)
2. (+ / -)
3. (- / -) ✓
4. (0 / 0)
The competitive exclusion principle states:
1. Two species cannot occupy exactly the same niche in the same place at the same time ✓
2. Two species can share the exact same niche indefinitely
3. Competition never occurs
4. All species compete equally
Resource partitioning allows:
1. Similar species to coexist by dividing resources ✓
2. Species to completely avoid all forms of competition
3. One dominant species to eliminate all others
4. No species to survive in the ecosystem
In mutualism, the relationship is:
1. One species benefits while the other is harmed
2. Both species benefit from the interaction ✓
3. Both species are harmed by the interaction
4. One species benefits while the other is unaffected
An example of mutualism is:
1. Tick on dog
2. Lion eating zebra
3. Bee pollinating flower while collecting nectar ✓
4. Snake eating mouse
In commensalism, the relationship is:
1. One species benefits while the other is harmed
2. Both species benefit from the interaction
3. Both species are harmed by the interaction
4. One species benefits while the other is unaffected ✓
An example of commensalism is:
1. Bee and flower, where both benefit
2. Barnacles on whale, where barnacles get transport and whale is unaffected ✓
3. Tick on dog, where tick benefits and dog is harmed
4. Fox eating rabbit, where fox benefits and rabbit is harmed
In parasitism, the relationship is:
1. Both species benefit from the interaction
2. Both species are harmed by the interaction
3. Parasite benefits while host is harmed ✓
4. Neither species is affected by the interaction
An example of parasitism is:
1. Tick feeding on dog's blood ✓
2. Cleaner fish and large fish
3. Bee and flower
4. Fox and rabbit
A keystone species:
1. Is always the most numerous
2. Has disproportionately large effect on ecosystem relative to its abundance ✓
3. Has no impact on ecosystem
4. Only eats plants
The sea otter is a keystone species because:
1. It has an attractive appearance that people enjoy
2. It is currently listed as an endangered species
3. It has no natural predators in its ecosystem
4. Removing it causes sea urchins to overgraze kelp forests and destroy habitat ✓
Invasive species are problematic because they:
1. Are native
2. Help biodiversity
3. Often lack natural predators and outcompete or prey on native species ✓
4. Are beneficial
Predation is represented as:
1. Predator benefits while prey is harmed ✓
2. Both species benefit from the interaction
3. Both species are harmed by the interaction
4. Neither species is affected by the interaction
Predator-prey population cycles typically show:
1. No relationship between predator and prey populations
2. Both populations always decreasing over time
3. Both populations always increasing over time
4. Prey peaks slightly before predator peaks, with populations oscillating ✓
Which is an adaptation of prey to avoid predators?
1. Bright warning colors (aposematism) if poisonous ✓
2. Slower movement
3. No defenses
4. Approaching predators
Mimicry occurs when:
1. All animals look different
2. Predators avoid all prey
3. Animals hide underground
4. A harmless species resembles a harmful one to gain protection ✓
The main threats to biodiversity can be remembered as HIPPCO:
1. Only hunting and overharvesting of animals
2. Habitat loss, Invasive species, Pollution, Population growth, Climate change, and Overexploitation ✓
3. Only pollution from industrial activities
4. Natural selection and evolutionary processes
Why is biodiversity important to humans?
1. It has no importance for human society
2. It provides ecosystem services including food, medicine, and water purification ✓
3. It is only valuable for aesthetic beauty and enjoyment
4. It has no economic value or practical benefits
An omnivore in a food web:
1. Occupies only one trophic level
2. Occupies multiple trophic levels depending on what it eats ✓
3. Never eats plants
4. Never eats animals
Symbiosis refers to:
1. Any close, long-term interaction between different species ✓
2. Only beneficial relationships
3. Only harmful relationships
4. Species that never interact
Which action would INCREASE biodiversity?
1. Deforestation
2. Introducing invasive species
3. Pollution
4. Creating wildlife corridors connecting fragmented habitats ✓
📖 science_quiz7_5_population_ecology
A population is defined as:
1. Random organisms from different species
2. All species living in a particular area
3. Individuals of the same species in the same area at the same time ✓
4. All plants found in an ecosystem
Population density is:
1. Total population
2. Number of individuals per unit area or volume ✓
3. Growth rate
4. Number of species
Which is the most common distribution pattern in nature?
1. Random
2. Clumped ✓
3. Uniform
4. All equally common
Population size increases due to:
1. Only immigration
2. Only deaths
3. Deaths and emigration
4. Births and immigration ✓
Exponential growth produces a:
1. Straight line
2. S-shaped curve
3. J-shaped curve ✓
4. Circle
Carrying capacity (K) is:
1. Maximum population size an environment can support indefinitely ✓
2. Number of species
3. Maximum population growth rate
4. Birth rate
Logistic growth differs from exponential growth by:
1. It slows as population approaches carrying capacity, forming S-curve ✓
2. It never slows
3. It only applies to plants
4. It's always faster
Density-independent factors:
1. Only affect crowded populations
2. Affect populations regardless of density, like weather or natural disasters ✓
3. Always increase population
4. Don't exist
Density-dependent factors:
1. Decrease in intensity as density increases
2. Have no effect on population size
3. Intensify as population density increases, such as competition, disease, and predation ✓
4. Only affect plants and not animals
r-selected species are characterized by:
1. Constant population
2. Few offspring, high parental care, long lifespan
3. No reproduction
4. Many offspring, little parental care, short lifespan, rapid development ✓
K-selected species are characterized by:
1. No competition
2. Few offspring, high parental care, long lifespan, slow development ✓
3. Many offspring, no parental care
4. Always small
Which is an example of an r-selected species?
1. Elephant
2. Whale
3. Bacteria ✓
4. Human
Population overshoot occurs when:
1. Population temporarily exceeds carrying capacity ✓
2. Population is too small
3. There are no resources
4. Population is always stable
A population crash typically follows:
1. Slow growth
2. Stable conditions
3. Overshoot of carrying capacity with severe resource depletion ✓
4. Immigration
The demographic transition describes:
1. Weather patterns
2. Animal migration
3. Plant growth
4. Changes in birth and death rates as societies develop ✓
Human population growth has been approximately:
1. Always slow
2. Stable
3. Exponential for the past 200 years ✓
4. Decreasing for centuries
Earth's biocapacity is estimated at 1.7 global hectares per person, but humanity's footprint is 2.8 gha. This means:
1. We're using more resources than Earth can regenerate ✓
2. We need less than what Earth provides
3. We're living sustainably within Earth's limits
4. Population is decreasing worldwide
Limiting factors:
1. Always increase populations
2. Have no effect on populations
3. Only affect plants
4. Restrict population growth or distribution ✓
Which factor is density-independent?
1. Hurricane destroying habitat ✓
2. Predation
3. Competition for food
4. Disease transmission
The growth rate (r) equals:
1. Birth rate × death rate
2. Birth rate ÷ death rate
3. Birth rate - death rate ✓
4. Birth rate + death rate
An example of density-dependent regulation is:
1. Earthquake
2. Competition for food intensifying in crowded conditions ✓
3. Forest fire
4. Cold winter
Uniform distribution often results from:
1. Social grouping
2. Territorial behavior or competition for space ✓
3. Random chance
4. Migration
If a population's birth rate is 30 per 1,000 and death rate is 10 per 1,000, the growth rate is:
1. 20 per 1,000 ✓
2. 30 per 1,000
3. 10 per 1,000
4. 40 per 1,000
The reindeer on St. Paul Island demonstrated:
1. Overshoot and crash, where population grew rapidly then collapsed ✓
2. No change in population size over time
3. Exponential growth continuing forever
4. A stable population that remained constant
What would cause a population to decline (r < 0)?
1. More deaths than births ✓
2. More births than deaths
3. Unlimited resources
4. Immigration exceeds emigration
📖 science_quiz7_4_biogeochemical_cycles
The key difference between energy flow and matter cycling is:
1. Both energy and matter work in exactly the same way
2. Matter flows in one direction while energy cycles
3. Energy flows in one direction and is lost, while matter cycles and is reused ✓
4. Neither energy nor matter moves through ecosystems
In the water cycle, what process converts liquid water to water vapor?
1. Condensation
2. Evaporation ✓
3. Precipitation
4. Infiltration
Transpiration is:
1. Water falling as rain
2. Water vapor released by plants through stomata ✓
3. Water soaking into soil
4. Water flowing in rivers
The carbon cycle is important because:
1. Carbon has no role in life
2. Plants don't need carbon
3. Carbon only exists in rocks
4. Carbon is the building block of all organic molecules and CO₂ is a greenhouse gas ✓
Photosynthesis removes CO₂ from the atmosphere and:
1. Releases it immediately
2. Converts it to nitrogen
3. Stores carbon in organic compounds like glucose ✓
4. Has no effect
Cellular respiration returns carbon to the atmosphere by:
1. Releasing CO₂ as organisms break down glucose for energy ✓
2. Absorbing CO₂
3. Creating oxygen
4. Storing carbon permanently
Burning fossil fuels affects the carbon cycle by:
1. Rapidly releasing ancient stored carbon as CO₂ and increasing atmospheric levels ✓
2. Removing CO₂ from the atmosphere permanently
3. Having no effect on the carbon cycle
4. Cooling the planet by reducing temperatures
Nitrogen fixation is necessary because:
1. There's no nitrogen in air
2. Nitrogen gas (N₂) is abundant but most organisms can't use it directly ✓
3. Plants prefer carbon
4. Animals create nitrogen
Which organisms can fix atmospheric nitrogen (N₂) into usable forms?
1. All plants
2. All animals
3. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria like Rhizobium ✓
4. Fungi only
Nitrification converts:
1. Oxygen → nitrogen
2. Nitrates → nitrogen gas
3. Nitrogen gas → ammonia
4. Ammonia → nitrites → nitrates ✓
Denitrification:
1. Converts nitrates back to N₂ gas, returning it to atmosphere ✓
2. Adds nitrogen to soil
3. Fixes nitrogen
4. Creates ammonia
The phosphorus cycle is unique because:
1. Phosphorus doesn't exist
2. It's the fastest cycle
3. It has no gaseous atmospheric phase ✓
4. Only animals use phosphorus
Eutrophication occurs when:
1. Excess nutrients cause algae blooms, oxygen depletion, and dead zones ✓
2. There are too few nutrients in the water
3. Water becomes too cold for organisms to survive
4. Salinity increases dramatically in the water
Human activities have increased atmospheric CO₂ from 280 ppm to 420 ppm primarily by:
1. Planting more trees
2. Breathing
3. Burning fossil fuels and deforestation ✓
4. Natural processes
Decomposers are essential to nutrient cycles because they:
1. Only consume living organisms
2. Remove all nutrients
3. Create new atoms
4. Break down dead matter, releasing nutrients back to soil for reuse by producers ✓
Where is most of Earth's carbon stored?
1. Atmosphere
2. Oceans
3. Rocks (limestone) ✓
4. Living organisms
Legumes (peas, beans, clover) improve soil fertility because:
1. They host nitrogen-fixing bacteria in root nodules ✓
2. They add water
3. They remove nutrients
4. They are colorful
The greenhouse effect is enhanced by increased:
1. Oxygen levels in the atmosphere
2. Helium gas concentrations
3. Nitrogen gas in the air
4. CO₂, methane, and other greenhouse gases that trap more heat ✓
Precipitation includes:
1. Rain, snow, sleet, and hail ✓
2. Only rain
3. Only evaporation
4. Only condensation
Ocean acidification is caused by:
1. Too much oxygen
2. Cold temperatures
3. Too little salt
4. Excess CO₂ dissolving in ocean water, forming carbonic acid ✓
Infiltration in the water cycle refers to:
1. Water falling from clouds
2. Water soaking into soil to become groundwater ✓
3. Water evaporating
4. Water flowing over land
Synthetic fertilizers affect the nitrogen cycle by:
1. Removing all nitrogen
2. Adding excess nitrogen that can run off and cause eutrophication ✓
3. Having no effect
4. Fixing nitrogen naturally
Which process is NOT part of the nitrogen cycle?
1. Photosynthesis ✓
2. Nitrification
3. Nitrogen fixation
4. Denitrification
Why is phosphorus often a limiting nutrient?
1. It has no atmospheric phase and is released slowly from rock weathering ✓
2. It's too abundant
3. It's not needed
4. Animals produce too much
The water cycle is powered primarily by:
1. Wind
2. Decomposers
3. Animal movement
4. Gravity and energy from the sun ✓
📖 science_quiz7_3_energy_flow
Primary productivity refers to:
1. Rate consumers eat producers
2. Rate decomposers work
3. Rate producers convert light energy to chemical energy ✓
4. Rate predators hunt
Net primary productivity (NPP) is:
1. All energy captured by photosynthesis
2. GPP minus respiration by producers ✓
3. Energy used by consumers
4. Total decomposer activity
The 10% rule states that:
1. 10% of organisms survive
2. About 10% of energy transfers from one trophic level to the next ✓
3. 10% of sunlight is captured
4. Food chains have 10 levels
Why is only about 1% of sunlight captured by producers?
1. Plants are inefficient
2. Too much oxygen
3. Not enough CO₂
4. Wrong wavelengths, structural limitations, sunlight doesn't hit all surfaces ✓
Energy pyramids are always pyramid-shaped because:
1. There are more species at the bottom
2. Producers are bigger
3. Energy decreases at each level due to energy loss ✓
4. Consumers are smaller
Unlike matter, energy in ecosystems:
1. Flows in one direction and is lost as heat ✓
2. Cycles infinitely
3. Increases at each level
4. Stays constant
Which ecosystem has the highest net primary productivity?
1. Tropical rainforest ✓
2. Tundra
3. Open ocean
4. Desert
If producers have 100,000 kcal, approximately how much energy reaches tertiary consumers?
1. 100,000 kcal
2. 100 kcal ✓
3. 1,000 kcal
4. 10,000 kcal
Trophic efficiency is:
1. Always 50%
2. 100% in all ecosystems
3. Percentage of energy transferred between trophic levels (typically ~10%) ✓
4. Not measurable
Most energy is lost between trophic levels as:
1. Light
2. Electricity
3. Sound
4. Heat from metabolism ✓
Why can ecosystems support fewer tertiary consumers than producers?
1. Tertiary consumers are pickier eaters
2. Much less energy available at higher trophic levels ✓
3. They need less food
4. They are smaller
Biomass pyramids can be inverted in aquatic ecosystems because:
1. Fish are heavier than algae
2. There's more water
3. Phytoplankton reproduce so rapidly their low standing biomass supports larger consumer biomass ✓
4. Decomposers are abundant
What happens to energy that doesn't transfer to the next trophic level?
1. Lost as heat, waste, and used for growth/metabolism ✓
2. It's stored forever
3. Converted to matter
4. Goes back to the sun
Eating lower on the food chain (e.g., plants instead of meat) is more efficient because:
1. Plants taste better
2. Less energy is lost through fewer trophic transfers ✓
3. Plants have more energy
4. Animals are harder to catch
Gross primary productivity (GPP) includes:
1. Energy from consumers
2. Only energy available to consumers
3. Energy in decomposers
4. All energy captured by photosynthesis before any is used by plants ✓
Which statement about energy in ecosystems is FALSE?
1. Energy flows in one direction
2. 10% typically transfers between levels
3. Energy can be recycled like nutrients ✓
4. The sun is the ultimate source
Why are food chains limited to about 4-5 trophic levels?
1. Insufficient energy remains after multiple 10% transfers ✓
2. Animals get too large
3. Not enough space
4. Too much competition
Primary productivity is highest in ecosystems with:
1. Low temperature and low water
2. Only sunlight
3. No nutrients
4. High sunlight, water, temperature, and nutrients ✓
The total amount of living tissue at each trophic level is called:
1. Biomass ✓
2. Energy
3. Population
4. Productivity
Cold-blooded animals have higher trophic efficiency than warm-blooded because:
1. They eat more
2. They are carnivores
3. They are larger
4. They don't waste energy maintaining constant body temperature ✓
In the energy pyramid, the largest amount of energy is found in:
1. Tertiary consumers
2. Producers ✓
3. Primary consumers
4. Secondary consumers
What would happen if all producers suddenly disappeared?
1. The entire ecosystem would collapse within a short time ✓
2. Consumers would eat each other indefinitely
3. Only herbivores affected
4. Decomposers would take over
Global net primary productivity is approximately evenly split between:
1. Forests and grasslands
2. Oceans and land ✓
3. Deserts and tundra
4. Cities and farms
The 10% rule explains why:
1. There are fewer lions than zebras ✓
2. All animals are the same size
3. Energy increases up the food chain
4. Producers need consumers
Which factor does NOT affect primary productivity?
1. Nutrient availability
2. Water availability
3. Number of predators ✓
4. Sunlight availability
📖 science_quiz7_2_food_chains_webs
In a food chain, energy flows from:
1. Consumers to producers
2. Decomposers to producers only
3. Producers to consumers ✓
4. Predators to prey
What is the role of decomposers in an ecosystem?
1. Hunt prey
2. Break down dead organisms and return nutrients to soil ✓
3. Produce energy from sunlight
4. Eat only living plants
Which organism is a primary consumer?
1. Grass
2. Grasshopper eating grass ✓
3. Snake eating frog
4. Hawk eating snake
What does the arrow represent in a food chain: Grass → Rabbit → Fox?
1. Direction predator moves
2. Direction nutrients move
3. Physical location
4. Direction energy flows (from food source to consumer) ✓
According to the 10% rule:
1. Energy increases at each level
2. 100% of energy transfers between levels
3. About 10% of energy transfers from one trophic level to the next ✓
4. No energy is lost
Which is an apex predator?
1. Lion with no natural predators ✓
2. Rabbit
3. Algae
4. Grasshopper
A food web is more realistic than a food chain because:
1. It shows multiple interconnected feeding relationships ✓
2. It shows only one path
3. It ignores decomposers
4. It's simpler
What is a trophic level?
1. A type of habitat
2. A position in a food chain based on feeding relationships ✓
3. A specific location
4. A type of organism
Why are food chains rarely longer than 4-5 levels?
1. There's too much energy
2. Producers can't support more
3. Not enough energy remains to support higher levels ✓
4. Animals get too big
An omnivore is an organism that:
1. Eats only dead matter
2. Eats only plants
3. Eats only meat
4. Eats both plants and animals ✓
In the food chain: Oak tree → Caterpillar → Bird → Cat, which is the secondary consumer?
1. Cat
2. Caterpillar
3. Bird ✓
4. Oak tree
What shape does a biomass pyramid typically have?
1. Inverted triangle (wide top)
2. Rectangle
3. Pyramid (wide bottom, narrow top) ✓
4. Circle
Which organism occupies the first trophic level?
1. Producer (plant) ✓
2. Decomposer
3. Herbivore
4. Carnivore
A keystone species removal can cause:
1. Improved ecosystem health
2. Only plants to be affected
3. No change to ecosystem
4. Trophic cascade with rippling effects throughout food web ✓
Parasites differ from predators because:
1. They are larger than their host
2. They are decomposers
3. They only eat plants
4. They usually don't immediately kill their host ✓
In an ocean food web, phytoplankton are:
1. Decomposers
2. Consumers
3. Producers ✓
4. Apex predators
If 10,000 kcal of energy is available at the producer level, approximately how much reaches the secondary consumer level?
1. 100 kcal ✓
2. 10 kcal
3. 1,000 kcal
4. 10,000 kcal
Which is an example of herbivory?
1. Lion eating zebra
2. Hawk eating snake
3. Snake eating mouse
4. Caterpillar eating leaf ✓
Scavengers are organisms that:
1. Eat dead animals (carrion) ✓
2. Decompose all organic matter
3. Produce their own food
4. Eat only living prey
In a food web, removing one species:
1. Always improves the ecosystem
2. Can cause changes throughout the web due to interconnections ✓
3. Has no effect
4. Only affects that one species
Which statement about energy in food webs is TRUE?
1. Energy increases at higher trophic levels
2. Energy flows in one direction and is eventually lost as heat ✓
3. Energy can be recycled infinitely
4. Consumers create new energy
A carnivore that eats only herbivores is a:
1. Decomposer
2. Primary consumer ✓
3. Producer
4. Secondary consumer
Which factor explains why there are fewer top predators than prey animals?
1. Limited energy available at higher trophic levels ✓
2. Prey need more space
3. Top predators reproduce faster
4. Top predators are less intelligent
Decomposers are essential because they:
1. Recycle nutrients back to the soil for producers to reuse ✓
2. Are top predators
3. Only eat living plants
4. Compete with producers
In a balanced ecosystem, removing wolves (apex predators) would likely cause:
1. No change in deer population
2. Extinction of all herbivores
3. Decrease in deer population
4. Increase in deer population leading to overgrazing ✓
📖 science_quiz7_1_introduction_ecosystems
What is an ecosystem?
1. Only living organisms
2. Only non-living factors
3. A community of organisms interacting with each other and their environment ✓
4. A single population
Which of the following is an abiotic factor?
1. Bacteria
2. Sunlight ✓
3. Plants
4. Animals
What is the correct order of ecological organization from smallest to largest?
1. Organism → Community → Population → Ecosystem
2. Organism → Population → Community → Ecosystem ✓
3. Population → Organism → Community → Ecosystem
4. Ecosystem → Community → Population → Organism
What is the difference between habitat and niche?
1. They are the same thing
2. Habitat applies only to animals
3. Habitat is the organism's role; niche is where it lives
4. Habitat is where an organism lives; niche is its role in the ecosystem ✓
Which biotic factor would be considered a decomposer?
1. Oak tree
2. Deer
3. Fungi ✓
4. Hawk
What is the ultimate energy source for most ecosystems?
1. The Sun ✓
2. Water
3. Wind
4. Soil
Which ecosystem would have the LOWEST biodiversity?
1. Tundra ✓
2. Coral reef
3. Tropical rainforest
4. Estuary
What is the biosphere?
1. A single ecosystem
2. All ecosystems on Earth ✓
3. Only marine ecosystems
4. Only terrestrial ecosystems
An organism's niche includes:
1. Only what it eats
2. Only where it lives
3. Its role, what it eats, when it's active, and how it interacts with other species ✓
4. Only its predators
According to the competitive exclusion principle:
1. Two species can occupy the exact same niche indefinitely
2. All species have identical niches
3. Competition never occurs in nature
4. Two species cannot occupy exactly the same niche in the same place at the same time ✓
Which is an example of an ecosystem service?
1. Factory emissions
2. Pollination by bees ✓
3. Concrete parking lots
4. Synthetic fertilizers
A community differs from an ecosystem in that:
1. A community includes abiotic factors
2. They are identical
3. A community includes only living organisms, while an ecosystem includes both biotic and abiotic factors ✓
4. A community is larger
What makes an ecosystem more resilient to disturbances?
1. High biodiversity ✓
2. Low biodiversity
3. Only one species
4. No species interactions
Which is an abiotic factor in a pond ecosystem?
1. Water pH ✓
2. Fish
3. Algae
4. Bacteria
An invasive species in a new ecosystem typically:
1. Has many natural predators
2. Struggles to survive
3. Immediately goes extinct
4. Lacks natural predators and may outcompete native species ✓
What is a population?
1. All species in an area
2. Only plants in an area
3. Individuals of the same species in the same area at the same time ✓
4. All abiotic factors
Ecosystems can be:
1. Any size from a puddle to the entire biosphere ✓
2. Only small like puddles
3. Only large like oceans
4. Only terrestrial
Which pair represents a biotic and abiotic factor?
1. Sunlight and temperature
2. Rocks and minerals
3. Wind and rain
4. Tree and soil nutrients ✓
What happens when an ecosystem loses a keystone species?
1. The ecosystem structure dramatically changes or collapses ✓
2. Nothing changes
3. Biodiversity always increases
4. Only plants are affected
The term 'biodiversity' refers to:
1. Only number of species
2. Only ecosystem types
3. Only genetic variation
4. Variety of life at all levels: genetic, species, and ecosystem ✓
In which ecosystem would you expect the highest primary productivity?
1. Desert
2. Tropical rainforest ✓
3. Open ocean
4. Tundra
What is the primary role of producers in an ecosystem?
1. Decompose dead matter
2. Capture energy from sunlight through photosynthesis ✓
3. Consume other organisms
4. Release nutrients
Which ecosystem type covers the most area on Earth?
1. Marine (oceans) ✓
2. Desert
3. Rainforest
4. Grassland
Limiting factors in an ecosystem:
1. Have no effect on populations ✓
2. Restrict population growth or distribution
3. Always increase biodiversity
4. Are only biotic
An organism that can make its own food is called:
1. A consumer
2. A decomposer
3. A predator
4. A producer ✓
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